Skip to main content
9 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 20, 2017 at 0:55 history edited burtonpeterj CC BY-SA 3.0
Added the assumption that $X$ is standard.
Nov 20, 2017 at 0:54 comment added burtonpeterj I should have assumed that the probability spaces are standard.
Nov 14, 2017 at 15:40 comment added Michael Greinecker It is not true that "any two nonatomic probability spaces are isomorphic", not even in terms of their measure algebra.
Nov 14, 2017 at 12:46 comment added Nik Weaver Actually, that isn't right. It only shows that the limit of a sequence of measurable functions is measurable. The limit of a net won't be, in general. And anyway the metric topology is different from the product topology.
Nov 14, 2017 at 6:39 comment added Shakiba @nik-weaver oops! my reasoning was incorrect. Let me try a different reasoning: measurability of $f$ means $f^{-1} (a)$ is measurable for any $a \in F$ but when a sequence of measurable functions $f_{n}$ converges to $f$, $f^{-1}(a)=\{x \in X | \exists N, \forall n \geq N, x \in f_{n}^{-1}(a)\}$. Latest equality is nothing but $\bigcup_{k=1} \bigcap_{n=k}f_{n}^{-1}(a)$ which is measurable. So this is a proof for: pointwise limit of measurable observable is a measurable one.
Nov 13, 2017 at 18:47 comment added Shakiba @nik-weaver For finiteness of $F$, any convergent sequence of measurable, $f_{n}$, which is convergent to a function $f$, when is computed in a point must be ultimately constant so there is a &n& such that $f_{n}=f$, thus $f$ is measurable. Am I wrong?
Nov 13, 2017 at 18:15 comment added Nik Weaver @Shakiba, burtonpeterj is right. (The set of measurable elements is typically not closed.)
Nov 13, 2017 at 17:49 comment added Shakiba For any set $X$ and finite set $F$, the topological space $F^{X}$ with product topology which is pointwise convergence, is a compact space (Tychonoff's theorem). But measurable elements if this space is a closed subset so is compact.
Nov 13, 2017 at 15:07 history answered burtonpeterj CC BY-SA 3.0