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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Feb 24, 2012 at 13:19 answer added stjc timeline score: 0
Jun 18, 2010 at 13:01 vote accept Abhishek Parab
Jun 18, 2010 at 11:22 comment added Pete L. Clark There are good answers below, but briefly: the "Zariski Riemann surface" is usually not a Riemann surface (sorry!): it is a top. space. When $K/k$ is f.g. of trdeg $1$, the Z.R.S. is essentially the Zariski topology on the unique complete, normal curve over $k$ with function field $K$. (When $k = \mathbb{C}$, there really is a compact Riemann surface here. Otherwise not.) If the trdeg is greater than one, the Z.R.S. is more complicated than any one variety with the given function field: it is keeping track of all models at once. If tr.deg. is zero, the Z.R.S. is a single point.
Jun 18, 2010 at 5:13 answer added Tom Goodwillie timeline score: 13
Jun 18, 2010 at 4:08 answer added Charles Siegel timeline score: 2
Jun 18, 2010 at 3:38 history asked Abhishek Parab CC BY-SA 2.5