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Oct 28, 2009 at 10:29 comment added Randomblue Well the infinite Ramsey theorem holds if you use only finitely many colours, but there is no such assumption here. Does that help?
Oct 28, 2009 at 5:28 comment added Tom Church The question has been answered, but I'm still confused. Isn't Ramsey's theorem exactly the statement that there is always a infinite monochromatic complete subgraph, so that the probability would be identically 1?
Oct 27, 2009 at 21:49 vote accept Randomblue
Oct 27, 2009 at 18:19 answer added Kevin P. Costello timeline score: 9
Oct 27, 2009 at 17:53 history asked Randomblue CC BY-SA 2.5