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Jul 31 at 20:11 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Capitalise title, while this is on the front page
Jul 27 at 13:30 answer added user1234 timeline score: 1
Mar 11 at 14:23 comment added user122877 When $\dim(X)=1$, how exactly does the finiteness of $\text{Br}(X)$ follow from the ABHN theorem? My understanding of ABHN is the short exact sequence $0\to\text{Br}(K)\to\bigoplus_v \text{Br}(K_v)\to\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}\to0$ for a global field $K$.
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Nov 25, 2017 at 4:51 comment added user95222 @Timo Keller What motivates your question? The question is wide open in the flat proper case over $\text{Spec}(\mathbf{Z})$ as much as in the proper case over $\text{Spec}(\mathbf{Z})$, so you must have something specific in mind.
Nov 7, 2017 at 15:21 comment added user19475 @WillSawin: You are right, I have posted this as an answer.
Nov 7, 2017 at 15:21 answer added user19475 timeline score: 1
Nov 7, 2017 at 15:17 comment added Will Sawin Doesn't the same cohomological argument work?
Nov 7, 2017 at 15:07 comment added user19475 @WillSawin: This is at least equivalent for function fields.
Nov 7, 2017 at 15:05 comment added Will Sawin For an elliptic curve, isn't this equivalent to finiteness of Sha, and thus aren't there partial results coming from the various partial results on BSD?
Nov 7, 2017 at 14:59 history edited YCor
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Nov 7, 2017 at 14:56 history edited user19475 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 4, 2017 at 11:01 history asked user19475 CC BY-SA 3.0