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Oct 30, 2017 at 11:10 comment added js21 I totally agree. But that was not the original question :)
Oct 30, 2017 at 11:02 comment added Will Sawin @js21 Sure, but my argument shows there is a single program that works for all $p,n,m$.
Oct 30, 2017 at 10:46 comment added js21 Again: for all $p,n,m$ the number of possible inputs is finite, and any function on a finite set is computable.
Oct 30, 2017 at 10:42 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Oct 30, 2017 at 10:24 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0