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Oct 30, 2017 at 13:37 vote accept H A Helfgott
Oct 30, 2017 at 3:41 history edited GH from MO
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Oct 29, 2017 at 22:57 answer added Ralph Furman timeline score: 14
Oct 29, 2017 at 22:26 answer added Salvo Tringali timeline score: 8
Oct 29, 2017 at 21:03 comment added user41593 A rigorous but not quick way: write the Abel-Plana formula as $$\zeta(s)=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{s-1}+\int_0^\infty \frac{2\sin(s \arctan x)}{(1+x^2)^{s/2}(e^{2\pi x}-1)} dx$$ and bound the modulus in an appropriate way...
Oct 29, 2017 at 20:39 comment added H A Helfgott That's nice, but I wonder how to check the bound $|\zeta(s)|\leq 9$ rigorously and quickly. Incidentally, there is a paper by Apostol (ams.org/journals/mcom/1985-44-169/S0025-5718-1985-0771044-5/…) that gives numerical values for $\zeta^{(n)}(0)/n!$ for $n<=18$ (but, oddly does not seem to give a simple bound on the rate of convergence to $-1$, though the data very strongly suggest such a convergence).
Oct 29, 2017 at 20:20 comment added Terry Tao For instance, it seems that $|\zeta(s)| \leq 9$ for $|s| = 10$, which seems to handle all $n \geq 1$, leaving only the classical $\zeta(0) = -1/2$.
Oct 29, 2017 at 20:04 comment added Terry Tao One can make Emanuele's argument quantitative by observing from the residue theorem that $\frac{\zeta^{(n)}(0)}{n!} = -1 + \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_\gamma \frac{\zeta(s)}{s^{n+1}}\ ds$ for any contour $\gamma$ going anticlockwise around both $0$ and $1$, e.g. the circle of radius $2$. One can use numerical bounds on $\zeta$ on such a contour to get an exponentially decaying bound for the integral which should suffice to obtain the claim for all but a small number of $n$ (perhaps just the ones listed by Gerald, in fact, given how fast the coefficients seem to converge to $-1$).
Oct 29, 2017 at 19:59 comment added user41593 They are indeed eventually negative: write $$\zeta(1-s)+s^{-1}=\sum_n (\zeta^{(n)}(0)/n!+1)(1-s)^n$$ which converges around $s=0$ and is $O(1)$ at $s=0$, thus $\zeta^{(n)}(0)/n!+1 \rightarrow 0$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$.
Oct 29, 2017 at 19:51 comment added H A Helfgott Sure, but how do you do that? (Does it follow easily from the functional equation?)
Oct 29, 2017 at 19:42 comment added Gerald Edgar The Taylor series for $\zeta(z)$ at $z=0$ has radius of convergence $1$, so it suffices to show all coefficients of it are negative... $\zeta(z) =- 0.5000000000- 0.9189385335\,z- 1.003178229\,{z}^{2}- 1.000785195\,{ z}^{3}- 0.9998793011\,{z}^{4}- 1.000001942\,{z}^{5}+\dots$
Oct 29, 2017 at 19:04 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 3.0
typo in the title
Oct 29, 2017 at 18:33 history asked H A Helfgott CC BY-SA 3.0