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Jan 16, 2020 at 8:47 vote accept Peter Wildemann
Apr 28, 2018 at 10:58 answer added mcd timeline score: 3
Apr 28, 2018 at 10:07 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Feb 27, 2018 at 8:55 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Jan 28, 2018 at 8:22 history edited Martin Sleziak
added top-level tag; https://meta.mathoverflow.net/questions/1457/why-are-mo-tags-formatted-as-they-are (The question has been bumped anyway,)
Jan 28, 2018 at 6:21 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Dec 29, 2017 at 5:33 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Nov 29, 2017 at 4:34 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Oct 30, 2017 at 5:44 comment added Anthony Carapetis The term "elliptic" in "elliptic BVP" usually refers principally to the operator - whenever you're trying to solve $F(u) = 0$ where $F$ is (nonlinear) elliptic and $u$ is constrained somehow on the boundary of the domain, you could call this an elliptic boundary value problem. Perhaps some authors would also require the boundary condition to make the problem well-posed to call it elliptic, or that the linearized operator $A: D(A) \subset X \to X$ is elliptic in some functional-analytic sense (e.g. sectorial) when restricted to the domain $D(A)$ defined by the boundary condition.
Oct 30, 2017 at 3:46 answer added Hadrian Quan timeline score: 1
Oct 29, 2017 at 12:06 history asked Peter Wildemann CC BY-SA 3.0