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Nov 4, 2017 at 14:01 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 28, 2017 at 8:17 comment added Dominic van der Zypen @YCor sorry I missed that question. Graph homomorphisms are usually defined to take edges to edges, so neighbours can't be mapped to the same vertex, see also en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_homomorphism
Oct 27, 2017 at 19:44 comment added YCor It's more difficult if you expect a positive answer, but easier if you expect a counterexample.
Oct 27, 2017 at 18:25 comment added MTyson The version with $G\times H$ is listed as an open question in "The Fixed Vertex Property for Graphs" by Schröder: link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11083-014-9337-5.
Oct 27, 2017 at 17:46 comment added Dominic van der Zypen That's right, but that question is maybe even more difficult? But I might change the question, yours looks actually more natural because it is more general. It is the better question in fact.
Oct 27, 2017 at 14:02 comment added YCor Btw you could ask whether when $G,H$ have FPP then so does $G\times H$.
Oct 27, 2017 at 14:01 comment added YCor In a homomorphism do you allow two neighbors to be mapped to the same vertex?
Oct 27, 2017 at 11:51 history edited Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 27, 2017 at 9:39 history asked Dominic van der Zypen CC BY-SA 3.0