Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Oct 21, 2017 at 20:05 vote accept მამუკა ჯიბლაძე
Oct 20, 2017 at 15:53 comment added Will Sawin @მამუკაჯიბლაძე No, because $Hom(\mathcal O(-1),\mathcal O(1))\neq Hom(\mathcal O(1), \mathcal O(-1))$.
Oct 20, 2017 at 15:45 answer added Jeremy Rickard timeline score: 5
Oct 20, 2017 at 12:25 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @pbelmans Is it obvious that automorphisms of P$^1$ induce identity on $K_0$? Also, cannot interchanging $O(1)$ and $O(-1)$ be realized by an autoequivalence?
Oct 20, 2017 at 11:55 comment added pbelmans @მამუკა The auto-equivalence group of $\mathbb{P}^1$ consists of standard auto-equivalences: tensoring with a line bundle, pullback along an automorphism, or shifting. Automorphisms induce the identity on the Grothendieck group, shifting is multiplication by $-1$. So that's why I ignored these.
Oct 20, 2017 at 11:43 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @JasonStarr well this would be even "less surjective".
Oct 20, 2017 at 11:43 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @pbelmans but why is any self-equivalence given by tensoring by a line bundle?
Oct 20, 2017 at 11:19 comment added Jason Starr Maybe the OP should ask about self-equivalences that preserve a dualizing object.
Oct 20, 2017 at 10:52 comment added pbelmans I might be overlooking something, but isn't the derived category of $\mathbb{P}^1$ already an example where it is not surjective? Tensoring by a line bundle will not give you the automorphism which permutes the copies of $\mathbb{Z}$ in $\mathrm{K}_0(\mathbb{P}^1)$.
Oct 20, 2017 at 10:33 history asked მამუკა ჯიბლაძე CC BY-SA 3.0