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May 7, 2021 at 20:29 history edited Joel David Hamkins
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Jun 17, 2010 at 6:56 vote accept Gérard Lang
Jun 16, 2010 at 16:37 comment added Marcos Cramer Here is a translation of the passage you quoted from Tarski: "By the way, some equivalent reformulations of this axiom [A] are known. For example, one can replace conditions A1-A4 by the following conditions A1'-A4' (and actually each condition can be replaced independently of the others)."
Jun 16, 2010 at 16:31 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 6
Jun 16, 2010 at 16:00 history edited algori CC BY-SA 2.5
split the posting into paragraphs
Jun 16, 2010 at 15:47 comment added Joel David Hamkins Here is a link to Solovay's FOM post: cs.nyu.edu/pipermail/fom/2008-March/012783.html. Note the date is March, not Februrary.
Jun 16, 2010 at 15:30 comment added Gérard Lang In each part A, B, C,of my message I have one question that is 1 (for A),2 (for B) and 3 (for C). My question 1 is: is it possible to have an equivalent theory in each three cases considered in A, when replacing the axiom "For every set x, there exists a set y containing x that is GU/ AT/ IN" by the axiom "There exists a proper class of GU sets/ AT sets/ INcardinals"
Jun 16, 2010 at 15:07 comment added Joel David Hamkins Could you clarify exactly what you are asking in item A? Also, I would suggest that you might organize your question into paragraphs, in order that it might become easier to read.
Jun 16, 2010 at 14:22 history asked Gérard Lang CC BY-SA 2.5