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In page 67 of Topology and Analysis by Booss and Bleecker, it is claimed that any Hilbert bundle is topologically trivial. Clearly, any smooth Hilbert bundle over a smooth manifold is topologically trivial, but it appears to be no reason to believe that this trivialization is smooth. So, my questions are:

• Are there known conditions on the manifold and on the Hilbert space to guarantee that such topological trivialization is actually smooth?

• Are there known counterexamples showing that such smooth trivialization is impossible in the general case?

EDIT: The definition of smooth Hilbert bundle is the one defined in 2.1 of: László Lempert and Róbert Szőke, Direct images, fields of Hilbert spaces, and geometric quantization, (arXiv:1004.4863) namely

A smooth (always complex) Hilbert bundle is a smooth map $p\colon H\to S$ of Banach manifolds, each fiber $p^{-1}(s)$, $s\in S$, is endowed with the structure of a complex vector space; for each $s\in S$ there should exist a neighborhood $U\subset S$, a complex Hilbert space $X$, and a smooth map (local trivialization) $F\colon p^{-1}U \to X$, whose restriction to each fiber $p^{-1}(t)$, $t\in U$, is linear, and such that $p\times F\colon p^{-1} U \to U \times X$ is a diffeomorphism.

In page 67 of Topology and Analysis by Booss and Bleecker, it is claimed that any Hilbert bundle is topologically trivial. Clearly, any smooth Hilbert bundle over a smooth manifold is topologically trivial, but it appears to be no reason to believe that this trivialization is smooth.My questions are:

• Are there known conditions on the manifold or on the Hilbert space to guarantee that such topological trivialization is actually smooth?

• Are there known counterexamples showing that such smooth trivialization is impossible in the general case?

EDIT: The definition of smooth Hilbert bundle is the one defined in 2.1 of: László Lempert and Róbert Szőke, Direct images, fields of Hilbert spaces, and geometric quantization, (arXiv:1004.4863) namely

A smooth (always complex) Hilbert bundle is a smooth map $p\colon H\to S$ of Banach manifolds, each fiber $p^{-1}(s)$, $s\in S$, is endowed with the structure of a complex vector space; for each $s\in S$ there should exist a neighborhood $U\subset S$, a complex Hilbert space $X$, and a smooth map (local trivialization) $F\colon p^{-1}U \to X$, whose restriction to each fiber $p^{-1}(t)$, $t\in U$, is linear, and such that $p\times F\colon p^{-1} U \to U \times X$ is a diffeomorphism.

In page 67 of Topology and Analysis by Booss and Bleecker, it is claimed that any Hilbert bundle is topologically trivial. Clearly, any smooth Hilbert bundle over a smooth manifold is topologically trivial, but it appears to be no reason to believe that this trivialization is smooth. So, my questions are:

• Are there known conditions on the manifold and on the Hilbert space to guarantee that such topological trivialization is actually smooth?

• Are there known counterexamples showing that such smooth trivialization is impossible in the general case?

EDIT: The definition of smooth Hilbert bundle is the one defined in 2.1 of: László Lempert and Róbert Szőke, Direct images, fields of Hilbert spaces, and geometric quantization, (arXiv:1004.4863) namely

A smooth (always complex) Hilbert bundle is a smooth map $p\colon H\to S$ of Banach manifolds, each fiber $p^{-1}(s)$, $s\in S$, is endowed with the structure of a complex vector space; for each $s\in S$ there should exist a neighborhood $U\subset S$, a complex Hilbert space $X$, and a smooth map (local trivialization) $F\colon p^{-1}U \to X$, whose restriction to each fiber $p^{-1}(t)$, $t\in U$, is linear, and such that $p\times F\colon p^{-1} U \to U \times X$ is a diffeomorphism.

In page 67 of Topology and Analysis by Booss and Bleecker, it is claimed that any Hilbert bundle is topologically trivial. Clearly, any smooth Hilbert bundle over a smooth manifold is topologically trivial, but it appears to be no reason to believe that this trivialization is smooth. So, my questions are:

• Are there known conditions on the manifold and on the Hilbert space to guarantee that such topological trivialization is actually smooth?

• Are there known counterexamples showing that such smooth trivialization is impossible in the general case?

EDIT: The definition of smooth Hilbert bundle is the one defined in 2.1 of: László Lempert and Róbert Szőke, Direct images, fields of Hilbert spaces, and geometric quantization, (arXiv:1004.4863) namely

A smooth (always complex) Hilbert bundle is a smooth map $p\colon H\to S$ of Banach manifolds, each fiber $p^{-1}(s)$, $s\in S$, is endowed with the structure of a complex vector space; for each $s\in S$ there should exist a neighborhood $U\subset S$, a complex Hilbert space $X$, and a smooth map (local trivialization) $F\colon p^{-1}U \to X$, whose restriction to each fiber $p^{-1}(t)$, $t\in U$, is linear, and such that $p\times F\colon p^{-1} U \to U \times X$ is a diffeomorphism.

In page 67 of Topology and Analysis by Booss and Bleecker, it is claimed that any Hilbert bundle is topologically trivial. Clearly, any smooth Hilbert bundle over a smooth manifold is topologically trivial, but it appears to be no reason to believe that this trivialization is smooth. So, my questions are:

• Are there known conditions on the manifold and on the Hilbert space to guarantee that such topological trivialization is actually smooth?

• Are there known counterexamples showing that such smooth trivialization is impossible in the general case?

EDIT: The definition of smooth Hilbert bundle is the one defined in 2.1 of the following paper: https://arxiv.org/pdf/1004.4863.pdf

In page 67 of Topology and Analysis by Booss and Bleecker, it is claimed that any Hilbert bundle is topologically trivial. Clearly, any smooth Hilbert bundle over a smooth manifold is topologically trivial, but it appears to be no reason to believe that this trivialization is smooth. So, my questions are:

• Are there known conditions on the manifold and on the Hilbert space to guarantee that such topological trivialization is actually smooth?

• Are there known counterexamples showing that such smooth trivialization is impossible in the general case?

EDIT: The definition of smooth Hilbert bundle is the one defined in 2.1 of: László Lempert and Róbert Szőke, Direct images, fields of Hilbert spaces, and geometric quantization, (arXiv:1004.4863) namely

A smooth (always complex) Hilbert bundle is a smooth map $p\colon H\to S$ of Banach manifolds, each fiber $p^{-1}(s)$, $s\in S$, is endowed with the structure of a complex vector space; for each $s\in S$ there should exist a neighborhood $U\subset S$, a complex Hilbert space $X$, and a smooth map (local trivialization) $F\colon p^{-1}U \to X$, whose restriction to each fiber $p^{-1}(t)$, $t\in U$, is linear, and such that $p\times F\colon p^{-1} U \to U \times X$ is a diffeomorphism.