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Oct 20, 2017 at 5:44 vote accept Ron
Oct 19, 2017 at 6:49 history edited R. van Dobben de Bruyn CC BY-SA 3.0
Extended (1) to the non-ample case.
Oct 18, 2017 at 23:44 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn Ah, I misread the question. You're absolutely right; this argument does not work when $Y$ is not ample. I will say some words about the more general situation (if someone else doesn't beat me to it).
Oct 18, 2017 at 9:46 comment added Sasha Yes, for (1) one needs $Y$ to be an ample divisor in $X$. Otherwise, there is a simple counterexample --- take $X = Y \times P^{1}$, then the restriction of $O_X(Y)$ to $Y$ is trivial.
Oct 18, 2017 at 6:51 comment added Ron Why is $Y$ a hyperplane section of $X$? If I understand you use this in the proof of $(1)$.
Oct 18, 2017 at 5:57 history edited R. van Dobben de Bruyn CC BY-SA 3.0
Small mathemetical omission.
Oct 18, 2017 at 5:50 history edited R. van Dobben de Bruyn CC BY-SA 3.0
Minor formatting improvement.
Oct 18, 2017 at 5:45 history answered R. van Dobben de Bruyn CC BY-SA 3.0