In my research, I found this identity and as I experienced, it's surely right. But I can't give a proof for it. Could someone help me? This is the identity: let a,b$a$ and $b$ be two positive integers; then:
$\sum_{i,j \ge 0} \binom{i+j}{i}^2 \binom{(a-i)+(b-j)}{a-i}^2=\frac{1}{2} \binom{(2a+1)+(2b+1)}{2a+1}$.