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Apr 21, 2023 at 14:37 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Links and tidying, while this is on the front page
Apr 21, 2023 at 13:09 answer added Joscha Gillessen timeline score: 3
Oct 18, 2017 at 20:33 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard I've just noticed that the equivalence of the definitions follows from Proposition 5.3, implication "(i) $\implies$ (ii bis)", in Verdier’s Exposé normalesup.org/~forgogozo/SGA4/02/02.pdf
Oct 12, 2017 at 10:21 vote accept Pierre-Yves Gaillard
Oct 11, 2017 at 17:27 answer added Dylan Wilson timeline score: 11
Oct 11, 2017 at 12:35 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard @DylanWilson - Thanks! Unfortunately I know nothing about model categories. You're most welcome to give further details in a new comment or in an answer. (I may accept an answer I don't fully understand.)
Oct 11, 2017 at 12:10 comment added Dylan Wilson I think these might be equivalent by the argument that proves "Ken Brown's lemma" in model category theory.
Oct 11, 2017 at 11:31 history asked Pierre-Yves Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0