Timeline for measurability of the limit of functions parameterized by real numbers
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 8, 2017 at 16:04 | comment | added | Christian Remling | @MichaelGreinecker: Yes, of course the remark was about the "example" (if you want to call it that), which I thought was the actual question, since the OP answers the first part him/herself. I have made many silly mistakes on MO in the past, but I think I'd have to get quite a bit more senile still before I could think that $\limsup_{s\to 0} \ldots = \limsup_{s\to 0, s\in\mathbb Q} \ldots$ in general. | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 13:45 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | @MichaelGreinecker: Just for this example, surely. | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 13:44 | answer | added | Nate Eldredge | timeline score: 1 | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 12:33 | answer | added | Arno | timeline score: 0 | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 9:11 | comment | added | Michael Greinecker | @ChristianRemling What if $t\mapsto f_s(t)$ is $1$ if $s$ is irrational and $0$ otherwise? Or is your remark only meant to apply to the example given? | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 5:21 | comment | added | ronggang | @ Christian Remling: You are right. Thanks. | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 3:43 | comment | added | Christian Remling | Yes, because you can take the $\liminf$ along the rationals. | |
| Oct 8, 2017 at 3:40 | history | edited | ronggang | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 211 characters in body
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| Oct 8, 2017 at 3:32 | history | asked | ronggang | CC BY-SA 3.0 |