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Oct 7, 2017 at 2:44 comment added Christian Remling @YairCarmon: Because $\widehat{f^{(p)}(t)}=(2\pi it)^p\widehat{f(t)}$, so $f^{(p)}(x) = \int (2\pi i t)^p \widehat{f(t)} e^{2\pi i tx}\, dt$.
Oct 7, 2017 at 2:23 vote accept Yair Carmon
Oct 7, 2017 at 2:20 comment added Yair Carmon Thanks! Can you provide a reference/explanation for the inequality $B_p \le C^p \| t^p \widehat{f} \|_{L_1}$?
Oct 7, 2017 at 1:23 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 7, 2017 at 1:17 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
added 709 characters in body
Oct 7, 2017 at 1:09 history answered Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0