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May 9, 2018 at 13:47 history edited Russ Woodroofe CC BY-SA 4.0
added update on compactness, pedagogical remark
Oct 6, 2017 at 12:38 comment added Russ Woodroofe I agree there's a detail there, but I think it's straightforward. Measure theory makes it immediate, but isn't necessary. For example, if you use open intervals, you could take a finite subcover of [0,2] by compactness. Now you have a finite set of intervals with total length < 1, which cover an interval of length 2.
Oct 6, 2017 at 11:54 comment added Gerald Edgar When you say "this is nonsense" you need explanation. One explanation is existence of Lebesgue measure. What you show is: a countable set has measure at most $1$. You also need: the real line has measure ${}> 1$. But (so far) you have not proved that.
Oct 6, 2017 at 10:27 history answered Russ Woodroofe CC BY-SA 3.0