Timeline for Cover of the positive real numbers by intervals
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 25, 2017 at 12:49 | answer | added | Wojowu | timeline score: 6 | |
| Sep 25, 2017 at 12:38 | comment | added | Lwins | It seems like that this question is strongly related to diophantine approximation. By Hurwitz's theorem $(x,y)=(0,2)$ is OK, as Mateusz Kwaśnicki said. Furthermore I think that $(x,y)>(0,2)$ may failed for the same reason. | |
| Sep 25, 2017 at 12:16 | comment | added | Mateusz Kwaśnicki | On the other hand, $x = 0$ and $y = 2$ does the job. @StefanKohl: Do you have any conjectured answer? | |
| Sep 25, 2017 at 12:09 | comment | added | Wojowu | Not for any $x,y$ both greater than $1$, by measure reasons. | |
| Sep 25, 2017 at 12:04 | history | asked | Stefan Kohl♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |