The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theoremthe Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails for the Laplace equation in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.
The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$
$$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$
might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.
The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).
Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$
Have a look at the textbook by Chipot or the free monograph by Showalter where the approach is explained in detail.