Skip to main content
fixed link
Source Link
David Loeffler
  • 37k
  • 3
  • 89
  • 194

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theoremthe Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails for the Laplace equation in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the textbook by Chipot or the free monograph by Showalter where the approach is explained in detail.

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails for the Laplace equation in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the textbook by Chipot or the free monograph by Showalter where the approach is explained in detail.

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails for the Laplace equation in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the textbook by Chipot or the free monograph by Showalter where the approach is explained in detail.

Links are added.; deleted 113 characters in body
Source Link
Andrey Rekalo
  • 22.3k
  • 12
  • 89
  • 122

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails for the Laplace equation in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotonemonotone, coercivecoercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the recent booktextbook by Chipot or the free monograph by Showalter where the approach is explained in detail.

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the recent book by Chipot where the approach is explained in detail.

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails for the Laplace equation in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the textbook by Chipot or the free monograph by Showalter where the approach is explained in detail.

Source Link
Andrey Rekalo
  • 22.3k
  • 12
  • 89
  • 122

The argument you have presented is an adaptation of the Lax-Milgram theorem which is essentially equivalent to the Riesz representation theorem (and generally speaking both of these results hold only in the Hilbert space framework). The Lax-Milgram theorem fails in $L^p$-spaces with $p\neq2$. Instead, some analogous results based on the ideas of coercivity, duality and monotonicity can be obtained in any reflexive Banach space.

The Dirichlet problem for the $p$-Laplace operator
$$-\nabla(|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u)=f,\quad x\in\Omega,\qquad (*)$$ $$u=0,\qquad x\in\partial\Omega,$$ might be a "correct" $L^p$-analogue of the problem described in the question.

The right hand side of $(*)$ gives rise to the mapping $A: W_{0}^{1,p}\to(W_{0}^{1,p})^{*}$ defined by the identity $$\langle Au,v\rangle=\int_{\Omega}|\nabla u|^{p-2}\nabla u\cdot\nabla v\ dx\quad \mbox{for all } v\in W_{0}^{1,p}.$$ A straightforward check shows that $A$ satisfies the conditions of the following theorem (which might be viewed as an $L^p$-analogue of the Lax-Milgram theorem).

Theorem. Let $A$ be a strictly monotone, coercive operator from a reflexive Banach space $E$ to its dual $E^{* }$. If $A$ is continuous on finite-dimensional subspaces of $E$ then for every $f\in E^{*}$ there exists a unique solution to the problem $$Au=f.$$

Have a look at the recent book by Chipot where the approach is explained in detail.