Timeline for Orthogonality to harmonic functions
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
17 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Oct 29, 2017 at 19:46 | history | edited | A random mathematician | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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S Sep 29, 2017 at 1:02 | history | bounty ended | A random mathematician | ||
S Sep 29, 2017 at 1:02 | history | notice removed | A random mathematician | ||
Sep 28, 2017 at 15:57 | vote | accept | A random mathematician | ||
Sep 24, 2017 at 15:48 | answer | added | Hu xiyu | timeline score: 0 | |
Sep 24, 2017 at 9:57 | answer | added | Mateusz Kwaśnicki | timeline score: 2 | |
Sep 23, 2017 at 15:27 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | Please do not make cosmetic edits to bump your question, given that you only asked it two days ago | |
Sep 23, 2017 at 15:05 | comment | added | A random mathematician | Yes $\Phi=|x|^{-1}$. | |
Sep 23, 2017 at 15:03 | history | edited | A random mathematician | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Sep 23, 2017 at 10:05 | comment | added | Mateusz Kwaśnicki | Just to be sure: is $\Phi(x) = |x|^{-1}$ the Newtonian potential? The Green function of $\Omega$ would be more natural here. | |
S Sep 22, 2017 at 23:19 | history | bounty started | A random mathematician | ||
S Sep 22, 2017 at 23:19 | history | notice added | A random mathematician | Draw attention | |
Sep 21, 2017 at 3:36 | comment | added | A random mathematician | For every polynomial function $P(x,y,z)$ there exists an $n$ such that $\Delta^n P$ is harmonic. The proof will follow from an approximation argument. | |
Sep 21, 2017 at 3:10 | comment | added | timur | When $f\equiv1$, how does it imply $a_0=b_0$? | |
Sep 21, 2017 at 2:42 | history | edited | A random mathematician | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Sep 20, 2017 at 23:30 | history | edited | A random mathematician | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Sep 20, 2017 at 18:37 | history | asked | A random mathematician | CC BY-SA 3.0 |