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Jun 14, 2010 at 20:40 vote accept 7-adic
Jun 14, 2010 at 17:42 comment added Rob Harron Thanks, Scott. I had to run so I just quickly wrote up the statement.
Jun 14, 2010 at 15:28 comment added S. Carnahan To match the notation here with the notation of the question, set $n := p^r$ and $p:=q$. Short version of answer: Yes iff $\phi(p^r)/f = 1$.
Jun 14, 2010 at 14:02 history answered Rob Harron CC BY-SA 2.5