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Sep 17, 2018 at 21:26 history edited Taras Banakh CC BY-SA 4.0
added 15 characters in body
Sep 17, 2018 at 17:26 comment added Gro-Tsen Oh yes of course, silly question. Thanks.
Sep 17, 2018 at 15:38 comment added Fedor Petrov @Gro-Tsen by injectivity it contains two different points and by continuity on the segment between them we get the whole segment
Sep 17, 2018 at 14:59 comment added Gro-Tsen Wait, why does for any $p_1$ the set $f(p_1\times\mathbb{R}^{\omega-1})$ have non-empty interior? Isn't the first projection $f\colon(p_n)_{n\in\omega}\,\mapsto p_1$ a counterexample? Or are you using injectivity of $f$ on $\mathbb{Q}^\omega$, but how? (I remember convincing myself that your argument was correct, but now I all confused.)
Sep 17, 2018 at 10:30 history edited Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 4.0
edited body
Sep 3, 2017 at 6:47 vote accept Taras Banakh
Sep 3, 2017 at 6:47 comment added Taras Banakh Thank you for the nice and short solution. I also arrived to negative answer and started to write it (using Baire Theorem), but your solution is much shoter and nice.
Sep 3, 2017 at 6:10 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 3.0