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Jun 15, 2010 at 7:24 comment added aghitza Thanks Peter, that's giving me a very good starting point.
Jun 15, 2010 at 7:23 vote accept aghitza
Jun 13, 2010 at 9:07 comment added Wadim Zudilin It seems that the author asks for meromorphic continuation... Terence Tao's paper is arxiv.org/pdf/0908.4323 .
Jun 13, 2010 at 9:06 history edited Peter Humphries CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jun 13, 2010 at 8:44 comment added Peter Humphries Indeed, it's pretty obvious that $\zeta_{\mathcal{P}}(s)$ is going to have a singularity at $s=1$, so any continuation is going to at best be meromorphic.
Jun 13, 2010 at 8:34 comment added Wadim Zudilin If one writes $$\log\biggl(1-\frac1{p^s}\biggr)=-\frac1{p^s}+O(p^{-2s})$$ for $p$ sufficiently large, the result you mention implies that the sum $$\sum_{p\equiv a\pmod{q}}\frac1{p^s}$$ has $\Re(s)=1$ as natural boundary for analytic continuation. But then the same is valid for $\sum_pp^{-s}$. Is this correct?
Jun 13, 2010 at 8:03 history answered Peter Humphries CC BY-SA 2.5