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Aug 21, 2017 at 9:59 comment added David Roberts A stupid question: Is the action of the gauge transformations proper? An obvious reason why it wouldn't be is if any of the stabiliser groups are non-compact.
Aug 21, 2017 at 8:59 comment added Vít Tuček @AlexWaldron It depends on the definition of Hilbert manifold. Sometimes metrizability / paracompactness is part of it (see e.g. map.mpim-bonn.mpg.de/Hilbert_manifold) but I suspect that this author just means manifold modelled on a Hilbert space. I should've included the word irreducible of course. Sorry for the omission.
Aug 21, 2017 at 8:56 history edited Vít Tuček CC BY-SA 3.0
irreducible
Aug 19, 2017 at 19:31 comment added Alex Waldron The quotient is a Banach manifold (or Hilbert manifold?), away from the reducible connections (which are a major part of this question), but that does not imply paracompactness.
Aug 19, 2017 at 8:57 history edited Vít Tuček CC BY-SA 3.0
gauge equivalence
Aug 19, 2017 at 2:19 comment added Igor Belegradek The question was about the quotient of this normed space by the gauge group,
Aug 18, 2017 at 23:54 history answered Vít Tuček CC BY-SA 3.0