Timeline for Help trying to show that $p_0a_1 =0$ [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Aug 26, 2017 at 6:23 | review | Reopen votes | |||
Aug 26, 2017 at 17:20 | |||||
Aug 16, 2017 at 20:35 | vote | accept | user290425 | ||
Aug 16, 2017 at 6:24 | comment | added | Ali Taghavi | @MichaelRenardy According to conversations on this meta post, is not a good idea that this question would be reopen (Would not be on Hold)? | |
Aug 15, 2017 at 20:00 | comment | added | user290425 | @MichaelRenardy . This isn't an exercise problem. I am working though the paper "Spectrum-preserving linear mappings between Banach algebra and Jordan-Banach algebras" (academic.oup.com/jlms/article-abstract/62/3/917/874307/…) by Aupetit. In his proof of Theorem 1.1 (ii) he defines these two (and two other) mappings and then states that $p_0a= a_0$. I am trying to see why this is true, but in order to do so, I needed the result in my question. | |
Aug 15, 2017 at 9:54 | history | closed |
Michael Renardy user6976 Yoav Kallus Gabriel C. Drummond-Cole Stefan Kohl♦ |
Not suitable for this site | |
Aug 15, 2017 at 9:47 | answer | added | Ali Taghavi | timeline score: 1 | |
Aug 15, 2017 at 0:35 | review | Close votes | |||
Aug 15, 2017 at 9:54 | |||||
Aug 15, 2017 at 0:17 | comment | added | Michael Renardy | This looks like an exercise problem to me. | |
Aug 14, 2017 at 20:42 | review | First posts | |||
Aug 14, 2017 at 20:43 | |||||
Aug 14, 2017 at 20:39 | history | asked | user290425 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |