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Aug 16, 2017 at 16:44 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki I meant $P_1$; it need not be extremal for $P_2$. If $F$ is extremal for $P_3$ and $F=(1-t)F_1+t F_2$, $F_1, F_2 \in P_1$, $t\in(0,1)$, then in fact $F_1, F_2 \in P_3$ (because the support of $F_1$ and $F_2$ is contained in the support of $F$) and therefore $F_1=F_2=F$. Hence, $F$ is extremal for $P_1$. Converse is always true: an extremal point $F$ of a set is also extremal for any subset that contains $F$.
Aug 16, 2017 at 13:06 comment added Boby In the last part, do you mean that $F \in \mathbb{P}_3$ is extremal for $P_3$ is and only if it is extremal for $P_2$? Or do you mean $P_1$?
Aug 15, 2017 at 21:27 history bounty ended Boby
Aug 15, 2017 at 21:27 vote accept Boby
Aug 15, 2017 at 21:00 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki No, I do not have any reference. Dirac measures are the extreme points of the entire set of probability measures. Indeed, if $\delta_x=(1-t)\mu_1+t\mu_2$, then both $\mu_1$ and $\mu_2$ are necessarily supported in $\{x\}$, and so they are equal to $\delta_x$. Conversely, if $\mu$ is a measure with support $A$ that contains at least two points, then $A$ can be written as $A=A_1\cup A_2$ with $t:=\mu(A_2)\in(0,1)$ and so $\mu=(1-t)\mu_1+t\mu_2$ with $\mu_j(E)=\mu(E\cap A_j)/\mu(A_j)$. Thus, $\mu$ is not extremal. This argument is valid also when the support of $\mu$ is restricted to a given set.
Aug 15, 2017 at 0:13 comment added Boby Do you have a good reference on this subject? Also, never understood by why $\delta_x$ are extreme points in the case when $|x| \le d$. Could you explain this point a little?
Aug 11, 2017 at 22:27 history answered Mateusz Kwaśnicki CC BY-SA 3.0