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Jul 28, 2017 at 3:58 comment added Gerry Myerson I'd say it's certainly about the extension to prime powers. Your three categories are $f(p^n)=(f(p))^n$, $f(p^n)=f(p)$, and $f(p^n)=0$ (for $n\ge2$). Phi-function is $f(p^n)=p^{n-1}f(p)$, divisor function is $f(p^n)=n-1+f(p)$. The relative apriori naturality of these is not clear to me.
Jul 27, 2017 at 14:33 comment added Igor Rivin @GerryMyerson ... but if you notice, I am phrasing this as an extension problem, and presumably some extensions are a priori more natural than others (the Euler phi is extending $p-1,$ the divisor function $p+1,$ the number of divisors, $2,$ and if you did not know about their deeper meanings none of the extensions look particularly natural (notice that once you define the function on prime powers, there is no choice, so maybe the question is about the extension to prime powers...)
Jul 27, 2017 at 13:17 comment added Igor Rivin @GerryMyerson Yes, granted.
Jul 27, 2017 at 12:46 comment added Gerry Myerson The Euler phi-function is pretty natural, and falls into none of your three categories. Ditto for the number of divisors, the sum of divisors,....
Jul 27, 2017 at 6:38 comment added Lior Bary-Soroker The second is a la von Mangoldt.
Jul 27, 2017 at 4:14 comment added reuns In the context of L-functions, you'll want to write $$F(s) = \prod_p (1+f(p) p^{-s}) \prod_p (1+\sum_{k \ge 2} g(p^k)p^{-sk})$$ Such that (the Dirichlet series for) $\sum_p \log (1+\sum_{k \ge 2} g(p^k)p^{-sk})$ converges (absolutely) for $\Re(s) > \sigma$ the abscissa of convergence of $\sum_{p} \log(1+f(p) p^{-s})$ or $\sum_p f(p) p^{-s}$.
Jul 27, 2017 at 3:19 answer added Wlod AA timeline score: 2
Jul 27, 2017 at 2:35 history asked Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0