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Dec 21, 2010 at 9:36 history edited arsmath
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Jun 10, 2010 at 15:36 answer added Timothy Chow timeline score: 5
Jun 10, 2010 at 15:01 history edited Zirui Wang CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jun 10, 2010 at 14:59 comment added Zirui Wang @Joel David Hamkins: Right, I mean Corollary 3 and possibly Lemma 6. They do use Corollary 3 to prove the main result, Corollary 6. What I want is to figure out the proof for Corollary 3 so that I can understand the main result. Many thanks in advance.
Jun 10, 2010 at 12:52 comment added Joel David Hamkins The paper that Wang Zirui is referring to is presumably this one: cs.technion.ac.il/~shai/ph.ps.gz, which he links to in his other question. Look at page 3 and footnote 2. I am not sure what they mean, but they do rule out Con(PA) and fixed-point-lemma self-referential statements. It isn't clear (at least upon quick perusal) whether they are making a strict mathematical claim or an empirical observation.
Jun 10, 2010 at 12:16 comment added François G. Dorais Context would help too since the statement to be proven is clearly false. (E.g. Con(PA) is a true Pi_1 statement.) Perhaps there is some restriction on the statement in question.
Jun 10, 2010 at 12:11 comment added Joel David Hamkins Welcome to MathOverflow. The convention here is to state one's questions in the form of a question (preferably also with polite language), rather than textbook-exercise-style in the form of a command as you have. You can edit your question by clicking on 'edit'.
Jun 10, 2010 at 10:52 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 23
Jun 10, 2010 at 9:13 history asked Zirui Wang CC BY-SA 2.5