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Aug 21, 2023 at 17:46 vote accept Sebastian Goette
Aug 21, 2023 at 7:15 answer added Jeremy Rickard timeline score: 6
Aug 20, 2023 at 18:19 answer added Libli timeline score: 0
Jul 15, 2017 at 10:52 comment added Sebastian Goette @RobertBryant I wonder wether $R=\mathbb Z/6$ is weird enough to produce a counterexample. $R$ is the sum of two fields, and it seems to me that one can check separately what happens over $F_2$ and over $F_3$. That is, if $(e_i)$ is linearly independent in $M$ over $\mathbb Z_6$, then it has linearly independent images in the localisations of $M$ at $2$ and $3$, and we are in the field situation again. Probably, one needs rings like $\mathbb Z[X]/X^2$ or even worse.
Jul 14, 2017 at 18:35 comment added Robert Bryant @JeremyRickard: Oops! You are right; I had in mind a bad definition of 'linearly indepdent' for rings that are not integral domains when I suggested $\mathbb{Z}_6$ as a counter-example. I won't delete it, though, since it would make your comment useless.
Jul 14, 2017 at 8:47 comment added Jeremy Rickard @RobertBryant But $M$ and $N$ don't contain any non-empty linearly independent families of elements.
Jul 14, 2017 at 8:37 comment added Robert Bryant What about $R = \mathbb{Z}_6 = \mathbb{Z}_2\oplus\mathbb{Z}_3$, with $M=\mathbb{Z}_2$ and $N=\mathbb{Z}_3$? Then $M\otimes_RN = (0)$, even though each of $M$ and $N$ are principal $R$-modules (i.e., generated by a single element).
Jul 14, 2017 at 8:15 history asked Sebastian Goette CC BY-SA 3.0