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Feb 19 at 22:06 comment added Mohan @MatthewMorrow $K_0(k[t_1,\ldots, t_n])=\mathbb{Z}$ (not zero) is precisely the statement of Hilbert syzygy theorem.
Feb 19 at 21:15 answer added William Thomas timeline score: 0
Jun 24, 2022 at 21:01 history edited Glorfindel CC BY-SA 4.0
broken link fixed, cf. https://meta.mathoverflow.net/q/5301/70594
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jun 28, 2010 at 2:09 vote accept Hailong Dao
Jun 9, 2010 at 19:34 answer added Mohan timeline score: 21
Jun 9, 2010 at 19:09 answer added Seamus timeline score: 4
Jun 8, 2010 at 23:46 comment added Victor Protsak Swan constructed examples of Noetherian rings of dimension $m$ such that all projective modules of rank $\ne m$ are free, for all $m\equiv 2 (\mod 4).$ This may not be quite what you wanted, because the construction is topological and the rings are difficult to describe explicitly, but the conclusion is very strong. See Swan, Richard G. Topological examples of projective modules. Trans. Amer. Math. Soc. 230 (1977), 201--234 MR0448350
Jun 8, 2010 at 19:21 comment added Hailong Dao @Matthew: you should have put it on MO! Such question is (I think) exactly what MO is meant for.
Jun 8, 2010 at 18:56 history edited Hailong Dao CC BY-SA 2.5
added 1746 characters in body; edited tags; edited tags
Jun 8, 2010 at 9:12 comment added Matthew Morrow (typo: $0=\mathbb{Z}$).
Jun 8, 2010 at 9:11 comment added Matthew Morrow Very nice question! I was asking people in the dept this a couple of weeks ago, and I we couldn't answer it. My interest was the following: by homotopy invariance of K-theory we know that $K_0(k[T_1,\dots,T_n])=0$, and I wondered if this implied Serre's conjecture (even though elementary, direct proofs of Serre's conjecture are now known). Seems not.
Jun 8, 2010 at 8:05 answer added Simon Wadsley timeline score: 2
Jun 8, 2010 at 6:53 answer added Torsten Ekedahl timeline score: 12
Jun 8, 2010 at 6:38 comment added Hailong Dao Kevin: for Noetherian ring I don't think it matters. One can always resolves by finite free modules, and the high syzygy would be projective. For free, it matters.
Jun 8, 2010 at 6:13 comment added Kevin Ventullo Ahh, FD didn't mean what I thought. So in general, does the projective dimension of a f.g. module always mean the shortest resolution by finite projectives, or just projectives?
Jun 8, 2010 at 5:50 history edited Hailong Dao CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jun 8, 2010 at 5:40 comment added Hailong Dao Kevin: Let R=Z/6Z, M=Z/2Z. M is projective but does not have a finite free resolution.
Jun 8, 2010 at 5:34 comment added Kevin Ventullo My answer to the question you linked to shows that (1) holds for all rings. It is not equivalent to (3) since being stably free means you can direct sum with a finite free module to get a free module.
Jun 8, 2010 at 4:27 answer added Tyler Lawson timeline score: 9
Jun 8, 2010 at 4:08 history asked Hailong Dao CC BY-SA 2.5