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Timeline for An inequality in complete lattices

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Jul 3, 2017 at 14:00 comment added Emil Jeřábek I answered on math.SE .
S Jul 3, 2017 at 13:57 history suggested Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 3.0
removed (lattices) tag - see the tag-excerpt
Jul 3, 2017 at 13:37 comment added Martin Sleziak Asked also on Math.SE: A formula in complete lattice.
Jul 3, 2017 at 13:23 review Suggested edits
S Jul 3, 2017 at 13:57
Jul 3, 2017 at 12:40 comment added Emil Jeřábek It does, in fact, hold for distributive lattices. (I thought at first that one would need an infinitary distributive law, but plain distributivity actually suffices.)
Jul 3, 2017 at 12:14 comment added Emil Jeřábek I doubt this stands a chance without assuming some form of distributivity. For a simple counterexample, let $\Gamma$ be the diamond lattice with “middle elements” $x,y,z$, and put $A=\{x,y\}$, $B=\{z\}$. Then the left-hand side is $1$, but the right-hand side is $z$.
Jul 3, 2017 at 7:57 history asked ABB CC BY-SA 3.0