Timeline for Proof of prime gap bound?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jul 1, 2017 at 21:09 | comment | added | GH from MO | @GenRincewind: In fact Baker-Harman-Pintz say below their theorem: "With enough effort, the value of $x_0$ could be determined effectively." | |
Jul 1, 2017 at 21:08 | comment | added | GH from MO | @GenRincewind; The paper only proves the existence of $X_0$. I think though that in the above two papers the constants can be made explicit if one really needs it. | |
Jul 1, 2017 at 21:04 | comment | added | GenRincewind | Is there a value for $X_0$ yet or is merely the existence of such a number proven?(I'm still reading through Huxley's paper.) | |
Jul 1, 2017 at 21:03 | history | edited | GH from MO | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 41 characters in body
|
Jul 1, 2017 at 21:01 | comment | added | GH from MO | @GenRincewind: Yes. The precise theorem that Baker-Harman-Pintz prove is this: for $X\geq X_0$, there is a prime in $[X-X^{0.525},X]$. (The condition $X\geq X_0$, i.e. that $X$ is sufficiently large, was missing from my response. Let me add it now.) | |
Jul 1, 2017 at 20:59 | comment | added | GenRincewind | Just to check: G(X) < f(X) denotes that that the maximal prime gap, i.e. the largest gap, below X is less than f(X)? Right? Or am I misunderstanding the notation wholly? | |
Jul 1, 2017 at 20:50 | comment | added | GH from MO | @GenRincewind: You are welcome! | |
Jul 1, 2017 at 20:48 | vote | accept | GenRincewind | ||
Jul 1, 2017 at 20:45 | history | answered | GH from MO | CC BY-SA 3.0 |