Timeline for No kernel of the form $\lvert x - y\rvert^{-1}$ on tempered distributions?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
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| Mar 8 at 18:32 | comment | added | Abdelmalek Abdesselam | It's quite trivial and follows from the fundamental theorem of calculus $f(x,y)-f(x,x)=(y-x)\int_0^1 dt\ \partial_2 f(x,x+t(y-x))$, where $\partial_2$ means partial derivative with respect to the second argument. | |
| Mar 8 at 16:23 | comment | added | Isaac | Or, could you perhaps help me with this question? I can feel some sort of connection between this link and your answer. | |
| Mar 8 at 16:23 | comment | added | Isaac | Hello. Thank you for your insightful answer. Could you clarify for me why the second integral in the formula for $K(f)$ is finite? | |
| Jul 4, 2017 at 13:50 | vote | accept | Goulifet | ||
| Jun 29, 2017 at 17:27 | history | edited | Abdelmalek Abdesselam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jun 29, 2017 at 17:11 | history | edited | Abdelmalek Abdesselam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jun 29, 2017 at 17:03 | history | edited | Abdelmalek Abdesselam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jun 29, 2017 at 16:49 | history | answered | Abdelmalek Abdesselam | CC BY-SA 3.0 |