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Jun 17, 2017 at 14:42 comment added js21 Only asymptotic. Check the growth of the coefficients.
Jun 17, 2017 at 9:18 comment added Menglin @js21: A question about the convergence of your series: is the expansion only asymptotic or convergent in some sense near 0?
Jun 10, 2017 at 1:28 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 5
Jun 9, 2017 at 12:22 answer added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე timeline score: 2
Jun 9, 2017 at 12:16 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე Tried to make some plots, looks like it cannot be continued beyond $\operatorname{Re}(x)>0$
Jun 9, 2017 at 9:02 comment added Menglin @Christian Remling: Thanks for the update. Perhaps the possibility of analytic continuation should also be included as part of the question. I guess that's also what misled Bemte before.
Jun 8, 2017 at 23:28 comment added Christian Remling @მამუკაჯიბლაძე: Indeed. I also made (while editing) the very similar observation that "supposing" that $f(x)$ has a holomorphic continuation to a neighborhood of zero won't help if that is actually false.
Jun 8, 2017 at 19:20 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @ChristianRemling your edit directed my attention to one circumstance - it might well be that $f$ is not actually defined in a neighborhood of $0$ at all and the sought value should be understood as the limiting value as $x$ tends to $0$ along the real axis. It is not even clear to me whether one would obtain the same value if $x$ goes to $0$ tangentially - say, $x=t^2+it$ and $t\to0$ (from the positive direction). The latter limit might not even exist.
Jun 8, 2017 at 18:47 comment added Christian Remling @Menglin: I've made some stylistic changes, in an attempt to state more clearly what I think you wanted to ask (maybe it's just me, but I found your earlier version mildly confusing). Feel free to go back to your version of course if you don't like this.
Jun 8, 2017 at 18:45 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 8, 2017 at 12:10 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @js21 ...so I believe you should make an answer :)
Jun 8, 2017 at 12:01 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე Btw they also give an alternative expression for the same: $$ \sum_{n\geqslant0}\left(\zeta(-2n,\frac14)-\zeta(-2n,\frac34)\right)\frac{(-16x)^n}{n!} $$
Jun 8, 2017 at 12:00 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე Calculations in the paper "A $q$-series identity and the arithmetic of Hurwitz zeta functions" by Coogan and Ono (PAMS 131 (2003), 719-724) confirm (I believe) calculations by @js21 in the comments. They have (see their (1.3)) $$ \sum_{k\geqslant0}(-1)^ke^{-(2k+1)^2x}=\frac {e^{-x}}{1+e^{-2x}}\sum_{n\geqslant0}\frac{(e^{-2x};e^{-4x})_ne^{-2nx}}{(-e^{-6x};e^{-4x})_n}=\frac12+\frac12x+\frac54x^2+...=\sum_{n\geqslant0}L(\chi_{-1},-2n)\frac{(-x)^n}{n!}, $$ exactly as in the above comment.
Jun 8, 2017 at 11:53 answer added Fedor Petrov timeline score: 1
Jun 8, 2017 at 10:52 history edited YCor
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Jun 8, 2017 at 10:11 comment added js21 (continued) I should have written $a_n = (-1)^n n!^{-1} L(-2n, \chi)$ instead. Note that $L(-2n,\chi)$ is equal to half of the $(2n)-$th Euler number $E_{2n}$ (which is $= (2n)! \times$ coefficient of $x^{2n}$ in the hyperbolic sechant $\mathrm{sech}(x)$). in particular $a_1 = \frac{1}{2}$.
Jun 8, 2017 at 10:03 history edited Menglin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 8, 2017 at 9:59 comment added js21 @Menglin: a formal expansion of the exponentials suggests that $a_n = (-1)^n n!^{-1} L(-n,\chi)$ where $\chi $ is the nontrivial Dirichlet characer of odrer $4$. One can rigorously prove an asymptotic expansion $f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^N a_n x^n + o(x^N)$, with the $a_n$ as above, by writing the exponentials as an inverse Mellin transform of $\Gamma(s)$, and by moving the line of integration to the left using the residue theorem.
Jun 8, 2017 at 9:58 comment added Dirk I would compute $f'(0) = \sum_{k \geq 0} (-1)^{k+1}(2k+1)^2$ and therefore conclude that yes, $f'(0)$ does not exist. Ok, I thought it existed first, so I might have been a little to fast in judging, yes. But still, you should explain how you come to assume that $f$ even has an expansion in the neighborhood of $0$, as this would give $a_1$ to be a non-existing/non-converging (?) number?
Jun 8, 2017 at 9:54 comment added Menglin I don't see how as the result is divergent in doing so.
Jun 8, 2017 at 9:53 comment added js21 @Bemte: I am afraid you may have judged this question too quickly.
Jun 8, 2017 at 9:51 history edited Menglin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 8, 2017 at 9:48 review Close votes
Jun 8, 2017 at 11:02
Jun 8, 2017 at 9:38 comment added Dirk Just differentiate $f(x)$ element-wise, then input $x = 0$ (then add all the formal "what I did was ok, because..."). As mathoverflow deals with research level questions, you might want to try at math.SE. However, note that also there you will need your own approaches.
Jun 8, 2017 at 9:33 review First posts
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Jun 8, 2017 at 9:29 history asked Menglin CC BY-SA 3.0