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Jun 7, 2017 at 22:15 history edited 54321user CC BY-SA 3.0
updated hypotheses
Jun 7, 2017 at 22:01 comment added 54321user Hmm, with no common factors then.
Jun 7, 2017 at 21:10 comment added Jason Starr Okay, form the Koszul complex of $(f,f^2)$. Those polynomials are not projectively equivalent, but you have the same problem.
Jun 7, 2017 at 21:07 comment added 54321user and non-equal (or maybe even projectively equivalent) polynomials
Jun 7, 2017 at 21:04 comment added Jason Starr The Koszul complex of $(f,f)$ is equivalent to the Koszul complex of $(f,0)$, and that is going to be a tensor product with a complex like the one in my previous comment. This issue is persistent.
Jun 7, 2017 at 20:59 comment added 54321user Sure. I see how that is a problem, but if I restrict to the case of having polynomials of degrees $> 0$, my question still seems interesting.
Jun 7, 2017 at 20:35 comment added Jason Starr I suggest that you compute what happens if you take $X$ equal to all of $\mathbb{P}^n$ and then you take $\underline{f}$ to be $(0,\dots,0)$, where the $\text{i}^{\text{th}}$ component is the zero homomorphism $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^n}(d_i)\to \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{P}^n}$, for whatever degree $d_i$ that you like.
Jun 7, 2017 at 20:11 history asked 54321user CC BY-SA 3.0