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Jun 4, 2010 at 15:57 vote accept kenneth
Jun 4, 2010 at 15:57 comment added kenneth Thank you, Nate. I agree that $W^1$ is martingale, and optional sampling does not apply here. Hence, although $\mathbb{E} [W^1(T^1)] = 1 > W^1(0)$ is correct, it shall not become a reason for the strict local martingale.
Jun 4, 2010 at 14:46 comment added Nate Eldredge Perhaps the OP is thinking that if $W^a$ were a martingale, we should have $E[W^a(T^a)]=E[W^a(0)]=0$ by the optional sampling theorem (e.g. Karatzas and Shreve 1.3.22). But the optional sampling theorem is not applicable here because $W^a$ does not have a "last element".
Jun 4, 2010 at 13:40 history answered Steve Huntsman CC BY-SA 2.5