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Apr 7, 2011 at 19:45 comment added Michael Lugo Dirichlet only says that the digits 1, 3, 7, and 9 would occur infinitely often. To get normality you'd have to think about prime gaps. Normality or abnormality probably follows from the Hardy-Littlewood k-tuple conjecture (mathworld.wolfram.com/k-TupleConjecture.html).
Jan 12, 2011 at 18:45 comment added roy smith In trying to construct a less predictable normal number, are numbers using only a subset of the digits useful? Does Dirichlet''s theorem say that the number whose expansion consists of the last digits of successive primes > 5 gives a number with a normal occurrence of the digits 1,3,7,9? This is a variation on Davidac's comment.
Jun 4, 2010 at 14:38 comment added Timothy Chow @Gerry: I was suggesting that Paul Siegel consult Wikipedia for the answer to his question as to whether any specific number has been proven to be normal. It was Gerald Edgar, not I, who suggested that normality is a necessary (not sufficient) condition for a "random sequence." For my answer to Jim's question, see my answer to Jim's question.
Jun 4, 2010 at 1:54 comment added Gerry Myerson @Timothy, you aren't suggesting using .123456789101112131415... as a source of random digits, are you?
Jun 3, 2010 at 21:45 comment added Timothy Chow @Paul: Yes. See Wikipedia.
Jun 3, 2010 at 21:16 comment added Paul Siegel Has ANY specific number been proven to be normal?
Jun 3, 2010 at 19:57 history answered Gerald Edgar CC BY-SA 2.5