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Oct 14, 2017 at 10:12 vote accept Muriel
Oct 14, 2017 at 10:12
Oct 14, 2017 at 10:12 comment added Muriel As I have added before, $X$ and $Y$ are dependent. I am not sure I see where this solution is assuming independence.
S Oct 3, 2017 at 15:58 history suggested Max CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 3, 2017 at 15:57 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki This answer is as unclear as the question: in the first part, $X$ and $Y$ appear to be coupled (for $X>Y$ with probability one), while in the other part the are apparently assumed to be independent (although even in this case we have $f_{(X,Y)}(x,y)=(p_1 f_{\alpha_1}(x)+\ldots+p_n f_{\alpha_n}(x))(q_1 f_{\beta_1}(y)+\ldots+q_m f_{\beta_m}(y))$ rather than the expression given in the answer).
Oct 3, 2017 at 15:40 review Suggested edits
S Oct 3, 2017 at 15:58
May 6, 2017 at 12:23 history answered Henry.L CC BY-SA 3.0