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May 6, 2017 at 8:36 vote accept Jeffrey Shallit
May 6, 2017 at 6:30 answer added T. Amdeberhan timeline score: 11
May 6, 2017 at 0:55 answer added Jeffrey Shallit timeline score: 7
May 5, 2017 at 15:30 comment added Jeffrey Shallit Perhaps the right generalization is that the sequence $f(n) = \nu_p(P_n (p))$, for $P_n$ the $n$'th Legendre polynomial, and $p$ is a prime $\geq 3$, is a $p$-regular sequence (in the sense of my paper with Allouche). I just tried it for $p = 5$ and it seems to satisfy relations like $f(5n+2) = f(5n)$, etc.
May 5, 2017 at 15:13 comment added Jeffrey Shallit I have no results for anything other than 3. Maybe that is because of Alekseyev's observation? I don't know.
May 5, 2017 at 15:06 comment added Igor Rivin Out of curiosity, is there anything special about $3?$ Do you have results for any other prime (even or otherwise)?
May 5, 2017 at 13:39 comment added Max Alekseyev It's worth to mention that the $a(n)$ form oeis.org/A001850 with tons of useful info and references. E.g., "$a(n)=P_n(3)$, where $P_n$ is $n$-th Legendre polynomial" sounds particularly relevant.
May 5, 2017 at 13:32 history edited Joe Silverman CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 5, 2017 at 12:22 comment added YCor It was my guess after 30s rereading to find where is the question, but it's better now that it's explicit. Also I wasn't 100% sure that "a more elegant proof by Zagier" does not refer to your conjecture.
May 5, 2017 at 12:21 history edited Jeffrey Shallit CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 5, 2017 at 12:20 comment added Jeffrey Shallit Really? It's not obvious? I am asking for a proof (or counterexample, if it's false).
May 5, 2017 at 12:20 comment added YCor What is the question?
May 5, 2017 at 10:40 history edited Jeffrey Shallit
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May 5, 2017 at 10:28 history asked Jeffrey Shallit CC BY-SA 3.0