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Apr 26, 2017 at 16:40 comment added Moritz Firsching @RodrigodeAzevedo I see, now I understand your reasoning.
Apr 26, 2017 at 16:33 comment added Rodrigo de Azevedo @MoritzFirsching I did not quite prove the statement. I proved that the statement holds in the extremely special case where the same permutation puts both vectors in non-decreasing order. That is not the case in the counterexample you gave. I am still working on the general case, trying to find an use for $\rm x^\top y \geq 0$.
Apr 26, 2017 at 16:27 comment added Moritz Firsching Wasn't $\mathrm x^{\top} \mathrm y \geq 0$ a condition that was necessary, since otherwise a counterexample exists? (see my comment above, after which the OP added the condition). It is weird, that it would not be used, when trying to prove the statement.
Apr 26, 2017 at 15:46 history edited Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 25, 2017 at 9:33 history edited Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 25, 2017 at 9:25 history edited Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 25, 2017 at 9:18 history answered Rodrigo de Azevedo CC BY-SA 3.0