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Apr 30, 2017 at 3:01 review Close votes
Apr 30, 2017 at 8:33
Apr 24, 2017 at 9:48 comment added Sam Nead To be clear, I think this question violates the principles listed here: mathoverflow.net/help/dont-ask -- the question is open ended, cannot have a "correct" answer, and invites discussion. Note that I do not think the poster is crazy, or the question is dumb, etc... It is just that the question doesn't have (and cannot have) a definite answer.
Apr 24, 2017 at 9:46 comment added Sam Nead The original question was "how large does $n$ have to be for Euclidean spaces of dimension $\geq n$ all to behave essentially the same way?" This question can't mean anything, because we aren't told what "the same way" means or what "essentially" means. What is the notion of sameness that is of interest here?
Apr 24, 2017 at 3:35 answer added Wlodek Kuperberg timeline score: 6
Apr 23, 2017 at 15:54 answer added Mikhail Katz timeline score: 1
Apr 23, 2017 at 15:47 review Close votes
Apr 23, 2017 at 16:51
Apr 23, 2017 at 15:39 comment added Bruce Blackadar This was indeed intended to be a serious question, and I don't think it is at all meaningless. It is ill-defined, and intentionally so; $\mathbb{R}^n$ is many things. I asked it to try to provoke the kind of discussion which has begun. As for the manuscript, it is not such a huge file (48MB), but it is long, although I have tried to make it easily searchable (I eventually hope to do better), and the relevant section can be easily found by a hyperlink from the table of contents.
Apr 23, 2017 at 15:35 comment added Franz Lemmermeyer Of course $n$ has to be at least $42$, but everybody knows that.
Apr 23, 2017 at 15:26 comment added Peter Heinig One of the infinitely many aspects in which high-dimensional products of the real numbers can be considered to be eventually similar is whether they are suitable for embedding a given class of objects into them (w.r.t. a given class of maps). There is a plethora of examples. Elementary example: w.r.t. smoothly embedding countable simple graphs, $\mathbb{R}^n$ is equivalent to $\mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m,n\geq 3$. Classical example: H. Whitney proved that for smoothly embedding a $d$-dimensional manifold, they are equivalent as soon $m,n\geq 2d$.
Apr 23, 2017 at 15:26 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 10
Apr 23, 2017 at 14:22 history reopened Alain Valette
R.P.
Mikhail Katz
user44143
Ulrich Pennig
Apr 23, 2017 at 12:46 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Todd Trimble
Apr 23, 2017 at 7:54 comment added Yemon Choi @SamNead I am ambivalent at the moment about whether the question should be reopened, but "meaningless" seems too strong. Perhaps "ill-defined" might be a fairer criticism? (Having read some of the OP's work I am inclined to start from the position that he has serious intent and proven experience, to put it mildly.)
Apr 23, 2017 at 7:48 review Reopen votes
Apr 23, 2017 at 14:11
Apr 23, 2017 at 7:12 history closed YCor
GH from MO
Qiaochu Yuan
Franz Lemmermeyer
Sam Nead
Needs details or clarity
Apr 23, 2017 at 7:12 comment added Sam Nead I took a (very brief) look at the PDF and the discussion within. I applaud your work in trying to come to grips with both the foundations of mathematics and some of the deeper questions beyond the foundations. But it seems to me that your question is meaningless. I am voting to close.
Apr 23, 2017 at 0:09 comment added Yemon Choi The PDF of the full book seems to be a rather large file. Would it be possible to replace your link with a link to an excerpt?
Apr 23, 2017 at 0:04 comment added Danielle Ulrich It's not clear to me that $\mathbb{R}^{2n}$ is all that similar to $\mathbb{R}^{2n+1}$. For instance, consider the following property of a vector space $V$: ``There exists a projection $\pi: V \to V$ and an isomorphism $\psi: V \to V$ such that $V = \pi(V) \oplus \psi(\pi(V))$." This characterizes the $\mathbb{R}^n$ for $n$ even.
Apr 22, 2017 at 23:44 comment added Oscar Cunningham One could look at this question to find theorems which are true in low dimensions but false in high dimensions. The highest dimension involved seems to be $65$. So $\mathbb R^{65}$ is similar to all higher dimensional spaces in the sense that each property mentioned in that post either holds for all of them or fails for all of them
Apr 22, 2017 at 23:28 review Close votes
Apr 23, 2017 at 7:15
Apr 22, 2017 at 23:13 comment added user44191 There's of course the simple answer: as sets, groups, and $\mathbb{Q}$ or $\bar{\mathbb{Q}}$-vector spaces, they are isomorphic.
Apr 22, 2017 at 23:12 comment added Geoffrey Irving Couldn't this question be asked about the integers themselves? I.e., how large do integers have to be before they're basically the same? It's hard to imagine a more context dependent question.
Apr 22, 2017 at 23:11 comment added paul garrett Although I don't have anything smart to say about this, I do see how the question could make sense: algebraic/differential topology behaves significantly differently in 1, 2, 3, 4, and then $\ge 5$ dimensions. As dimension goes up, spheres become (perhaps surprisingly) much smaller subsets of the circumscribing cube. Etc.
Apr 22, 2017 at 22:59 history asked Bruce Blackadar CC BY-SA 3.0