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S Apr 24, 2017 at 12:56 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Apr 24, 2017 at 12:56 history notice removed CommunityBot
Apr 16, 2017 at 14:07 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 13:27 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 13:14 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 12:49 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 12:14 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 11:29 comment added Joel David Hamkins Ah, I missed that detail. But can't you just take $f_n(x)=f(x)+\frac 1n$? This shifts the whole graph up by a constant, makes it strictly decreasing, and doesn't seem to change the upper semi-continuity class 2 part.
Apr 16, 2017 at 11:21 comment added Idonknow If we assume that $f_n$ is upper semicontinuous, then the answer is negative, as stated in the link in the post. If $f_n = f$, then $(f_n)$ is not strictly decreasing to $f$.
Apr 16, 2017 at 11:18 comment added Joel David Hamkins But now I wonder if that really is what you mean. Nothing seems to prevents me taking $f_n=f$. Do you mean that $f_n$ should be upper semicontinuous, or what?
Apr 16, 2017 at 11:06 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 11:05 comment added Joel David Hamkins You haven't stated in the question that you want the $f_n$ also to be upper semi-continuous class 2.
Apr 16, 2017 at 10:59 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu Can you provide some context?
S Apr 16, 2017 at 10:53 history bounty started Idonknow
S Apr 16, 2017 at 10:53 history notice added Idonknow Draw attention
Apr 14, 2017 at 2:38 history edited Idonknow
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Apr 14, 2017 at 0:32 history asked Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0