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Apr 13, 2017 at 16:14 comment added user2520938 @DanPetersen I figured that much yea. No one here has proven that $[X]=0\Rightarrow X=\emptyset$ "directly". I figured that these approaches that make it seem easy must have some more stuff going on underneath the surface.
Apr 13, 2017 at 16:11 comment added Dan Petersen A comment: the fact that the functions $N(-)$ and $P(-,t)$ defined on smooth projective varieties give rise to well defined motivic measures is not obvious; if you want to prove it, you should use the Bittner presentation of the Grothendieck ring.
Apr 13, 2017 at 13:28 history edited HYL CC BY-SA 3.0
Add the argument involving the Poincaré polynomial.
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:33 history edited HYL CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:29 history edited HYL CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:26 comment added Artur Jackson Nice. Lots of nice proofs.
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:25 history edited HYL CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:20 history answered HYL CC BY-SA 3.0