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Apr 24, 2021 at 4:55 comment added Vladimir Reshetnikov @MarcAlcobéGarcía An example of an arithmetic statement (that I find almost obviously intuitively true) about generalized multi-level polynomials that is not provable in PA, but provable in ZFC (it is quite similar to Goodstein’s theorem): math.stackexchange.com/q/1371535/19661
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jun 2, 2010 at 14:28 comment added François G. Dorais For example, the Paris-Harrington Theorem - en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Paris%E2%80%93Harrington_theorem - and Goodstein's Theorem - en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goodstein%27s_theorem
Jun 2, 2010 at 14:07 comment added Marc Alcobé García Another question would be then if ZFC proves any mathematically interesting arithmetic statement (other than Con(PA) or some Gödel sentence for PA) that PA cannot prove.
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:56 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:41 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:56
Jun 1, 2010 at 16:23 comment added François G. Dorais To clarify, moving to ZFC does reject some nonstandard models, but not all such models. For example, since ZFC proves Con(PA), no model of PA + ¬Con(PA) can be interpreted as the omega of a model of ZFC.
Jun 1, 2010 at 15:17 history edited François G. Dorais CC BY-SA 2.5
clarification
Jun 1, 2010 at 14:56 comment added François G. Dorais No, moving to ZFC doesn't help. This is what the second paragraph is about: no matter what theory you decide to interpret arithmetic in, if there is a model at all then there must be one with nonstandard integers. Perhaps surprisingly, this is not related to incompleteness per se, those are just properties of first-order logic.
Jun 1, 2010 at 14:48 comment added Marc Alcobé García Although not stated clearly, the idea is not to get rid of every nonstandard model (nor of every countable one), which, as you mention, is impossible. I would be happy if one could get rid of one of them (which could be impossible too, certainly I don't know). Restating the second part of the question: would moving to a stronger theory such as ZFC remove any of the nonstandard models of the weaker one (PA)? Moving from Q to PA certainly does! (See Smith's notes for an example). And what's more important. Does this have any relation with Incompleteness?
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:51 history edited François G. Dorais CC BY-SA 2.5
minor addition
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:16 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:16
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:00 history edited François G. Dorais CC BY-SA 2.5
correction
Jun 1, 2010 at 11:35 history answered François G. Dorais CC BY-SA 2.5