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Apr 13, 2017 at 23:51 vote accept Conner DiPaolo
Apr 12, 2017 at 16:58 answer added Conner DiPaolo timeline score: 0
Apr 12, 2017 at 2:59 history edited Conner DiPaolo CC BY-SA 3.0
some interesting updates!
Apr 11, 2017 at 16:34 history edited Conner DiPaolo CC BY-SA 3.0
update question to be more meaningful
Apr 11, 2017 at 16:30 comment added Conner DiPaolo Ah I think I see an issue. This question came from looking at the function $f(X) = X P X^* + XQ + R$ and trying to find an $X$ such that $f(X) \preceq_K f(Y)$ for all $Y\in\mathcal{L}(\mathcal{H})$ where $K = \mathcal{L}_+(\mathcal{H})$ is the positive cone. Since the $XQ$ term in general won't be positive, we would likely need to restrict the domain $X$ to be positive and require $Q$ to be positive as well. The resulting equation would force $Q$ to commute with all positive $H$ and would look more like the Lyapunov equation.
Apr 11, 2017 at 12:16 comment added J. E. Pascoe It's not totally clear how you used $\mathcal{H} = \mathbb{C}^n,$ so the fact should probably hold for any Hilbert space. I guess my question was, is there some way the question needs to be changed to get a meaningful answer?
Apr 11, 2017 at 7:57 comment added Conner DiPaolo Okay in general this can't hold. Consider $\mathcal{H}=\mathbb{C}^n$ and $H = iI$. Then $HQ - QH^* = 2iQ = 0$ so $Q=0$. I guess that does provoke an interesting question of whether $Q$ must be $0$ for any Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$.
Apr 11, 2017 at 7:43 comment added Conner DiPaolo If $Q$ is necessarily zero I guess the problem becomes trivial since $X=0$ would satisfy the equation. I can see that $HQ$ must be self-adjoint for all $H$ (specifically $Q$ must be self-adjoint) which is basically what you said. I guess this sub-question is equivalent to asking whether there exists a nonzero left-ideal on the multiplicative set of self-adjoint operators on a Hilbert space. I agree with your intuition that this can't always be the case, but I'll look into it tomorrow.
Apr 11, 2017 at 6:02 comment added J. E. Pascoe I have a question about the formulation of the problem: Shouldn't the equation imply that $HQ - QH^* = 0$ for all $H \in \mathcal{L}(\mathcal{H})?$ (Say, take the imaginary part of the equation.) I would guess this implies that $Q$ is zero.
Apr 11, 2017 at 5:32 history edited Conner DiPaolo CC BY-SA 3.0
clarify problem
Apr 11, 2017 at 5:26 history edited Conner DiPaolo CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed grammar
Apr 11, 2017 at 5:20 review First posts
Apr 11, 2017 at 6:22
Apr 11, 2017 at 5:17 history asked Conner DiPaolo CC BY-SA 3.0