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Jun 15, 2010 at 4:20 answer added Daniel Mehkeri timeline score: 3
Jun 6, 2010 at 14:51 answer added Jeremy Shipley timeline score: 2
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:56 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:56 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:56
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:41 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 19:56
Jun 1, 2010 at 17:36 answer added Timothy Chow timeline score: 15
Jun 1, 2010 at 15:34 comment added Brendan Cordy As François mentions, the non-standard models are there as a consequence of Lowenheim-Skolem. However, note that the first incompleteness theorem actually produces a 'witness' sentence for the existence of models which are not \emph{elementarily equivalent} to the standard one. Even complete theories have models of all cardinalities by Lowenheim-Skolem, but these models could all be elementarily equivalent. The incompleteness theorem guarantees this isn't the case.
Jun 1, 2010 at 13:12 history edited Marc Alcobé García CC BY-SA 2.5
fixed grammar
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:27 comment added François G. Dorais (I added some relevant tags.)
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:27 history edited François G. Dorais
edited tags
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:16 vote accept Marc Alcobé García
Jun 1, 2010 at 12:16
Jun 1, 2010 at 11:35 answer added François G. Dorais timeline score: 16
Jun 1, 2010 at 7:09 history asked Marc Alcobé García CC BY-SA 2.5