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S Apr 21, 2017 at 4:49 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Apr 21, 2017 at 4:49 history notice removed CommunityBot
Apr 16, 2017 at 13:39 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2017 at 0:22 comment added Idonknow Reply from Professor Kechris: It has been a very long time since I have thought about this subject but taking a quick look again in the paper, it appears that indeed the case ξ=1 is missing. Thanks for pointing this out.
Apr 14, 2017 at 17:36 comment added Todd Leason If they reply, please let us know what they say.
Apr 14, 2017 at 14:43 comment added Idonknow @ToddLeason: Okay, I will try to email authors.
Apr 14, 2017 at 5:12 comment added Todd Leason ... But the induction hypothesis hasn't been proved for $\xi_n = 1$, since the induction starts with $\xi=0$. So, in my opinion, the induction is missing the case $\xi=1$. If I where you, I would write to the authors and ask about this issue. However, I don't know if they're still active.
Apr 14, 2017 at 5:11 comment added Todd Leason Taking $\xi = 1$ in the paper's Theorem 4 (ii) (in section 3) should give an example. However, the proof is based on Lemma 3 and I don't see how the inductive proof of Lemma 3 works for countable ordinals: It starts with $\xi = 0$. Thus, the case $\xi = 1 = 0 + 1$ should follow from Case 3 for $\xi = 0$. But Case 3 requires an strictly increasing sequence $\xi_n$ with $\sup \xi_n = \omega^\xi=\omega^0=1$ (hence the sequence ends with $\xi_n = 1$) such that the induction hypothesis holds for all $\xi_n$. ...
Apr 13, 2017 at 15:02 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 14:40 comment added Idonknow @ToddLeason: I am interested to see an example of a function $f$ such that $f_{\xi}$ is not defined for some $\xi$.
Apr 13, 2017 at 14:38 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 14:26 comment added Todd Leason "Question: When will the function $f_{\xi}$ not [be] defined ?" -- What kind of answer do you expect ? Do you want a classification of functions $f$ such that that $f_{\xi}$ isn't defined for some ordinal $\xi$ or do you want to see an explicit example of such a function $f$ ?
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:20 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 13, 2017 at 11:26 comment added Idonknow They do not give any example. They define the upper regularization for bounded function but yet, they say the upper regularization might not be defined.
Apr 13, 2017 at 7:17 comment added Tommi You write, in the question, that the authors write that $\hat f$ might not be defined. Do they give examples or do they mean that it might not be defined for unbounded functions?
Apr 13, 2017 at 7:10 comment added Idonknow For bounded function $f $, I do not know any.
Apr 13, 2017 at 6:56 comment added Tommi Do you know examples where $\hat f$ is not defined?
S Apr 13, 2017 at 3:41 history bounty started Idonknow
S Apr 13, 2017 at 3:41 history notice added Idonknow Draw attention
Apr 13, 2017 at 3:40 history edited Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 9, 2017 at 10:54 history asked Idonknow CC BY-SA 3.0