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Apr 7, 2017 at 8:48 comment added Siméon Great! It seems the result used here is actually older than Goldowsky and Tonelli papers. See de La Vallée Poussin's Cours d'analyse infinitésimale (1914) which is cited by Goldowsky.
Apr 7, 2017 at 8:42 vote accept Siméon
Apr 4, 2017 at 21:26 comment added LSpice For lazy readers, this post is showing that the answer to the question (can the set where the absolute value of the derivative is strictly less than $1$ have measure $0$?) is 'no'.
Apr 4, 2017 at 20:50 history answered Ashutosh CC BY-SA 3.0