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Apr 2, 2020 at 1:17 history edited YCor
edited tags
May 13, 2017 at 16:34 answer added Keith Kearnes timeline score: 3
Mar 28, 2017 at 22:48 vote accept Włodzimierz Holsztyński
Mar 28, 2017 at 17:03 history edited Arturo Magidin CC BY-SA 3.0
restored the original "Obviously" to better context (it's not immediately clear from the final edit where the "obviously" was).
Mar 27, 2017 at 23:35 answer added Arturo Magidin timeline score: 5
Mar 26, 2017 at 1:57 comment added Arturo Magidin I haven't thought it through, but perhaps one way to get around the examples I have would be to require $f(S)=T$ rather than simple containment. It might destroy other desirable properties, though.
Mar 25, 2017 at 22:03 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński The notion is simple. The potential for this to be known or approximately known is high. Nevertheless, I've never seen anything like this (until I have written it myself). Sorry.
Mar 25, 2017 at 21:04 comment added Qfwfq Any reference to some literature in which this notion (pearl) or related notions appear?
Mar 25, 2017 at 19:46 comment added Arturo Magidin Sure, I can do that; it'll be later today, though.
S Mar 25, 2017 at 11:13 history suggested Rahman. M
tag editing...
Mar 25, 2017 at 10:56 review Suggested edits
S Mar 25, 2017 at 11:13
Mar 25, 2017 at 8:42 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński @ArturoMagidin, I appreciate your answers. I have a very hard time reading mathematics, and especially comments. I'd like you to present your material in one or more Answers--it'd help me a lot.
Mar 25, 2017 at 8:40 history edited Włodzimierz Holsztyński CC BY-SA 3.0
a clearer statement
Mar 25, 2017 at 7:07 comment added Arturo Magidin Actually, I'm not sure that free pearls are projective. Consider the free pearl $(F_2,\{x\})$, where $F_2$ is the free (abelian) group on $x$ and $y$. Now consider the epimorphism $f\colon (F_2,\{y\})\to(F_2,\{x,y\})$ induced by the identity map on $F_2$, and likewise $g\colon (F_2,\{x\})\to (F_2,\{x,y\})$. If $(F_2,\{x\})$ were projective, then there would be a homomorphism $h\colon (F_2,\{x\}) \to (F_2,\{y\})$ such that $fh = g$. But then the map on underlying sets satisfies $\mathrm{id}\circ h = \mathrm{id}$, so $h=\mathrm{id}$; yet we also need $h(x) = y$, which is clearly impossible.
Mar 25, 2017 at 6:29 answer added Arturo Magidin timeline score: 6
Mar 25, 2017 at 6:15 comment added Arturo Magidin On the other hand, the underlying group homomorphism must be surjective: suppose that $f\colon (G,S)\to (H,T)$ is a morphism and $f(G)\neq H$. Then there exists a group $K$ and embeddings $g,h\colon H\to K$ such that $gf=hf$ but $g\neq h$ (e.g., the free amalgamated product, or the construction in Linderholm's 1970 paper in the Monthly); in particular, neither $g(T)$ nor $h(T)$ contain the identity, so we can take the pearl $(K,g(T)\cup h(T))$ to get pearl maps $g=h$ such that $gf=hf$ but $g\neq h$. Hence, epimorphisms must be surjective on the group but not on the set.
Mar 25, 2017 at 6:09 comment added Arturo Magidin I don't think the induced function on the sets must be a surjection. Consider a group $G$ and sets $S\subsetneq T$ such that both $(G,S)$ and $(G,T)$ are pearls. Then $i\colon (G,S)\to(G,T)$ induced by the identity on $G$ is an epimorphism: if $f,g\colon (G,T)\to(K,V)$ are pearl morphisms with $fi=gi$, then for all $x\in G$ we have $f(x) = fi(x) = gi(x) = g(x)$, hence $f=g$. But the induced function $i\colon S\to T$ is not onto.
Mar 24, 2017 at 22:52 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński I've coined name pearl because a group is like gem, while its subset $\ S\ $ is like impurity. (BTW, profound mathematics always has this combination of a gem and, necessarily, of certain impurity, or else it's too sweet).
Mar 24, 2017 at 22:46 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński "Possibly, the induced function S→T always must be a surjection."--I've meant a function induced by a pearl epimorphism.
Mar 24, 2017 at 22:34 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński I mean epimorphism in the general abstract sense of the theory of categories, i.e. right cancellable morphism. My projective object definition here also follows the classical definition of the (abstract) theory of categories. *** I can only guess that in general pearl epimorphisms don't induce surjections (i.e. onto) of the sets of elements of the respective groups. Possibly, the induced function $\ S\rightarrow T\ $ always must be a surjection. I am not a specialist hence my guesses do not have much weight.
Mar 24, 2017 at 22:19 comment added Arturo Magidin Do you know if pearl epimorphisms are surjective on underlying sets (on the group, or on either component)? (I take "epimorphism" to refer to "right cancellable morphism", and projective to be relative to epimorphisms rather than strong epimorphisms or surjections).
Mar 24, 2017 at 22:12 history edited Włodzimierz Holsztyński CC BY-SA 3.0
motivation
Mar 24, 2017 at 21:59 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński @DavidHandelman, I'll expand the Question above.
Mar 24, 2017 at 21:47 comment added David Handelman What is the motivation for studying pearls?
Mar 24, 2017 at 21:23 history edited Włodzimierz Holsztyński CC BY-SA 3.0
epimorphism remark
Mar 24, 2017 at 21:19 history undeleted Włodzimierz Holsztyński
Mar 24, 2017 at 21:10 history deleted Włodzimierz Holsztyński via Vote
Mar 24, 2017 at 21:03 history asked Włodzimierz Holsztyński CC BY-SA 3.0