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Jan 12, 2018 at 23:48 history edited Sam Eisenstat CC BY-SA 3.0
fix typo (wrong variable)
Apr 19, 2017 at 12:07 comment added Todd Trimble In fact for this argument to work, we don't need that $[0, 1]^X$ is homeomorphic to $X$, just that it is a retract of $X$. This observation is put to use in an answer on the related thread, here: mathoverflow.net/a/267603/2926
Mar 22, 2017 at 8:08 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Aha, nice construction!
Mar 22, 2017 at 8:04 history edited Sam Eisenstat CC BY-SA 3.0
Disambiguated variable names for clarity
Mar 22, 2017 at 8:02 vote accept Qiaochu Yuan
Mar 22, 2017 at 7:56 review First posts
Mar 22, 2017 at 8:02
Mar 22, 2017 at 7:50 history answered Sam Eisenstat CC BY-SA 3.0